Monday, 5 August 2013

60 Top Dreamweaver Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

List of top 60 Dreamweaver multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced PDF.

Dreamweaver Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. How many Sites can you define with one copy of Dreamweaver installed on your computer?
A. unlimited
B.  2
C.  10
D.  999
Ans: A

2. What do you add to a template in order to control where page content goes?
A.  Text Frames
B.  HTML Controllers
C.  Editable Regions
D.  Page Content Controllers
Ans: C

3. Which of the following is NOT a Style?
A. Linked
B. Embedded
C. Inline
D. Orthogonal
Ans: D

4. Which of the following is NOT a Hotspot tool?
A. Orthogonal Hotspot Tool
B. Rectangular Hotspot Tool
C. Oval Hotspot Tool
D. Polygon Hotspot Tool
Ans: A

5. Which of the following is not supported by older browsers?
A. CSS
B. Layers
C. Frames
D. All of the above
Ans: D

6. Which of the following is the HTML tag to start a Heading Level 3?
A. <H3>
B. </H3>
C. <#H3>
D. <H3/>
Ans: A

7. Which type of style should you use if you want to use the formats on multiple pages?
A. Linked
B. Embedded
C. Inline
D. Orthogonal
Ans: A

8. When you create a "recipient" hidden field for a form, which of the following is the ONLY correct way to type the word "recipient?":
A. Recipient
B. <recipient></recipient>
C. recipient
D. RECIPIENT
Ans: C

9. Which file controls how your frames will appear?
A. Frameset
B. Master Document
C. Template
D. Timeline
Ans: A

10. What can't layers do if you want to convert them to tables?
A. Be close
B. Contain a Color
C. Be larger than the target table
D. Overlap
Ans: D

11. The trick to getting a ball to bounce around a Web page is to:
A. Add AnimationBounce layers
B. Add keyframes to the timeline
C. Add Bounce parameters to the Object properties
D. Dreamweave rdoes not support animation... use Flash instead
Ans: B

12. By default, what's the Fps shown on the timeline?
A. 15
B. 1
C. 20
D. huh?
Ans: A

13. When you swap images, it's best if:
A. The images are the same "Mime" type
B. The images are the same color
C. The images are the same size
D. You use the "Constrain" tool
Ans: C

14. Which of the following is false?
A. The Site Map can be saved as an image
B. You can FTP files using Dreamweaver
C. You can create forms in Dreamweaver
D. None of the above
Ans: D

15. Which of the following is NOT a Page Property?
A. Title
B. Tracing Image
C. Margin Width
D. Timeline
Ans: D

16. Dreamweaver users work in the Document Window using one of how many views?
A.  3
B.  5
C.  2
Ans: A

17. The general definition of a(n) ____ is a set of linked documents with shared attributes, such as related topics, a similar design, or a shared purpose.
A.  index
B.  website
C.  Internet
D.  Homepage
Ans: B

18. ____ provides the largest text.
A.  H6
B.  24
C.  H1
D.  Bold
Ans: C

19. Dreamweaver's ____ feature allows users to select colors and make perfect color matches.
A.  Color Cube
B.  Palattes
C.  HTML view
D.  Eye dropper
Ans: D

20. The W and H boxes in the Property inspector indicate the width and height of an image, in
A.  inches
B.  pixels
C.  points
D.  millimeters
Ans: B

21. A subfolder is a folder inside another folder.
A.  True
B.  False
Ans: A

22. A Web site's home page is normally named home.htm or home.html
A.  True
B.  False
Ans: B

23. _________ view is a hand-coding environment for writing and editing code.
A.  Design
B.  Split
C.  Code
Ans: C

24. ________ images are used to add texture and interesting color to a Web page.
A.  Clip Art
B.  Animated
C.  Background
D.  Cropped
Ans: C

25. In the __________ mode, you create tables by drawing them.
A.  Layout
B.  Expanded
C.  Standard
Ans: A

26. A ___________ is a vertical collection of cells in a table.
A.  Row
B.  Column
C.  Table ID
Ans: B

27. A _____________ is the container/intersection where a row and column meet in a table.
A.  tag
B.  table ID
C.  link
D.  cell
Ans: D

28. A ___________ can connect users to a place on the same web page or to place on another site.
A.  root folder
B.  typeface
C.  text editor
D.  hyperlink
Ans: D

29. In order to define a site, users must create a both a ___________ and ____________.
A.  domain name / IP address
B.  login / password
C.  site name / home page
D.  site name / root folder
Ans: D

30. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for defining a local site in Dreamweaver?
 A. To enable Dreamweaver to create relative links between documents
 B. To enable Dreamweaver to display all your sites files in the ‘Files Panel’
 C. To provide details of your Web server so that you can upload you site
 D. To allow Dreamweaver to conduct link checking between documents
Ans: C

31. To view and change current formatting for selected objects or text, you would use:
 A. Insert bar
 B. Property Inspector
 C. File Panel
Ans: B

32. You can insert dates into your web page that will automatically be updated whenever you save the page.
 A. True
 B. False
Ans: A

33. To insert a special character, what category on the Insert bar do you use?
 A. Common
 B. HTML
 C. Text
Ans: C

34. Which panel can be used to manage and create new sites?
 A. Files
 B. Application
 C. Tag Inspector
Ans: A

35. What should the home page of your site be named?
 A. home.html
 B. Anything you want to name it
 C. index.html
Ans: C

36. Cell padding determines the number of pixels between adjacent cells.
 True

 False
Ans: B

37. Which graphic format can you Not insert into your web page?
 A. bmp
 B. gif
 C. png
Ans: A

38. Which view must you be in to draw out a table visually.
 A. Standard
 B. Layout
 C. Table
Ans: B

39. Formatting using CSS styles allows each individual's browser to control the way your page is displayed.
 A. True
 B. False
Ans: B

40. What is the proper way to manually type an email link?
 A. email:myname@austincc.edu
 B. mailto:myname@austincc.edu
 C. mail:myname@austincc.edu
Ans: B

41.    The latest version of Dreamweaver is:
A.     Adobe Dreamweaver CS5.5
B.     Adobe Dreamweaver CS5
C.     Adobe Dreamweaver CS4
D.     Macromedia Dreamweaver 8
Ans: A

42.    Dreamweaver is sold by what software company:
A.    Adobe
B.    Macromedia
C.    Microsoft
D.    No company, the program simply appeared one day on the web.
Ans: A

43.    You can use Dreamweaver to create:
A.    HTML, XML, and CSS files
B.    PHP, Java, and ASP.NET
C.    The new space-time continuum format STCML
D.    all of the above, except the space-time continuum thing...
Ans: D

44.    HTML tags are surrounded by:
A.    brackets < ... >
B.    parenthesise ( ... )
C.    quote marks " ..."
D.    Fire-breathing dragons who try to keep you away from tags
Ans:  A

45.    You can save images for the Web in these formats:
A.    JPG, GIF, PNG
B.    PSD, Tiff
C.    Flickr
D.    ftp, fla, jsp
Ans: A

46.    The first page of a web site should most commonly be named:
A.    home.html
B.    index.html or default.htm depending on the server
C.    MySite.html
D.    Something cool, so the other sites will not make fun of it
Ans: B

47.    The </h1> is an opening tag.
A.    True
B.    False
C.    Do I have to learn HTML tags?
D.    Close your darn tags! Were you born in a barn?
Ans: B

48.    Bonus question: What is the refrain of the pop hit single Dreamweaver by Gary Wright
A.    Tomorrow, tomorrow, there's always tomorrow...
B.    You never count your money ...
C.    Yesterday, all my troubles seemed so far away...
D.    Dream weaver, I believe you can get me through the night
Ans: D

49. What option in the Target pop-up menu is chosen to open a linked document in a new browser window while keeping the current window available?
A. _top
B. _self
C. _blank
D. _parent
Ans: C

50. What does the asterisk after the file name in the document title bar signify?
A. document is untitled
B. page is not located within the site
C. the extension to the file name has not been specified
D. unsaved additions or deletions were made to the page
Ans: D

51. Using Dreamweaver, it is possible to convert layers to tables and tables to layers.
A.True
B. False
Ans: A

52. What describes the correct way to create a page layout that always fills the browser window, no matter what size window the viewer has set?
A. Add a spacer image to the table.
B. Create the table cell with a percentage width in the HTML.
C. Use the Dreamweaver Autostretch option to set the table width to resize automatically.
D. Create a fixed width table that corresponds with the specific numeric width of the viewer's browser.
Ans: C

53. Selecting header in the Property inspector for a given table's cell makes that content (Choose two)
A. bold and centered in most browsers
B. justified in all browsers
C. a <th> element
D. bold and italicized in most browsers
E. left-justified in all browsers \
Ans: C

54. A template can be modified after documents have been created based on the template.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

55. What accurately describes the way templates work in Dreamweaver? If a template file is opened you can edit
A. nothing in the file, unless no pages have been created from the template.
B. everything in the file.
C. any editable region.
D. anything in the file, but only in Code View.
Ans: B

56. What happens when content in <DIV> tags is viewed with 3.0 versions of  Netscape?
A. No content is displayed at all.
B. The content looks the same as it does in any other browser.
C. The content is only displayed if the visible attribute is set to true.
D. The content appears in the same location as where the <DIV> tags appear in the code.
Ans: D

57. The behaviors that come with Dreamweaver were written to work in all browsers.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

58. What panel is used to change the event that triggers an image swap?
A. CSS Panel
B. Assets Panel
C. Frames Panel
D. Objects Panel
E. Behaviors Panel
Ans: E

59. What is one way you change the color of text in Dreamweaver 4.0?
A. Highlight the text and then select: Edit>Font>Color from the menu
B. Highlight the text and select a new color with the Color Picker in the Properties panel
C. You are unable to change the text color in Dreamweaver, it can only be changed in the HTML
D. Highlight the text and change the color in the Objects panel
Ans: B

60. Bullets in unordered lists can only be circles.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

70 Top J2ME Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

List of top 70 J2ME multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced PDF.

J2ME Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following statements is true about Java ME?
  A.    Java ME is a single specification.
  B.    Java ME is a family of related specifications.
  C.    Java ME is a platform for creating applications for the well-established desktop market.
  D.    Java ME is a platform for creating server-side enterprise applications.
Ans: B

2. What is a configuration?
  A.    A configuration defines a set of class libraries available for a particular domain of devices.
  B.    A configuration defines a vertical (or specialized) set of classes.
  C.    A configuration defines a minimum set of class libraries for a wide range of devices.
  D.    All of the above.
Ans: C

3. What is a profile?
  A.    A profile defines a set of class libraries available for a wide range of devices.
  B.    A profile defines a horizontal set of classes that a configuration can use.
  C.    A profile defines the set of APIs available for a particular family of devices.
  D.    A profile is the foundation for a configuration.
Ans: C

4. The Personal Digital Assistant (PDA) Profile is based on:
  A.    Connected Device Configuration (CDC).
  B.    Connected Limited Device Configuration (CLDC).
Ans: B

5. The Foundation profile:
  A.    Extends the CDC by adding the missing user interface APIs.
  B.    Extends the CLDC by adding the missing Java 2, Standard Edition (J2SE) core libraries.
  C.    Is meant to serve as a foundation for other profiles.
  D.    All of the above.
Ans: C

6. The RMI profile is meant to be used with:
  A.    CLDC and MIDP
  B.    CDC and Foundation
  C.    Both A and B
Ans: B

7. The CLDC does not address user interface issues. They are left to be handled by the:
  A.    Foundation profile
  B.    Personal profile
  C.    Mobile Information Device Profile (MIDP)
  D.    None of the above
Ans: C

8. Which of the following network connections is supported by MIDP?
  A.    UDP datagrams
  B.    WAP
  C.    HTTP
  D.    All of the above
Ans: C

9. A Java ME-enabled device:
  A.    Can support only a single profile
  B.    Can support multiple profiles
Ans: B

10. A device that currently uses CLDC (and therefore has a profile) can use that profile with CDC without modification.
  A.    True
  B.    False
Ans: A

11. In the CDC, user interface issues are handled by the:
  A.    Foundation profile
  B.    Personal profile
  C.    Mobile Information Device Profile (MIDP)
  D.    None of the above
Ans: B

12. The CDC targets devices with _______ of total memory available for the Java platform, including both RAM and flash or ROM.
  A.    160 KB
  B.    256 KB
  C.    512 KB
  D.    2 MB or More   
Ans: D

13. The Java Virtual Machine1 specified to be used with the CDC is:
  A.    KVM
  B.    CVM
  C.    PVM
Ans: B

14. In MIDP, the maximum length of a record store name is:
  A.    8 characters
  B.    32 characters
  C.    128 characters
  D.    No limit on the length of a record store name
Ans: B

15. Is it possible to determine the contents of a JAR file before is it downloaded to a device?
  A.    No, it is not.
  B.    Yes, by inspecting the associated JAD file.
Ans: B

16. The CDC and Foundation make corrections to the J2SE libraries by removing all noncritical, deprecated APIs.
  A.    True
  B.    False
Ans: A

17. Which of the following network connections is supported by the CDC?
  A.    UDP datagrams   
  B.    TCP sockets
  C.    HTTP connections
  D.    None of the above
Ans: A

18. Which of the following network connections is supported by the Foundation profile?
  A.    UDP datagrams
  B.    TCP sockets
  C.    HTTP
  D.    All of the above
Ans: D

19. What compilation option should be used when compiling Java ME applications?
  A.    -classpath

  B.    -bootclasspath
  C.    -preverify
  D.    Any of the above
Ans: B

20. Which of the following areas are being investigated by the MIDP Next Generation?
  A.    HTTPS and secure networking
  B.    Network connectivity through sockets and datagrams
  C.    Extensions to the low-level user interface APIs to allow greater game functionality
  D.    All of the above
  E.    None of the above
Ans: E

21. A midlet is a Java class that extends the abstract class:
  A.    javax.microedition.MIDlet
  B.    javax.microedition.midlet
  C.    javax.microedition.midlet.MIDlet
  D.    javax.microedition.midlet.midlet
Ans: C

22. Which one of the following methods of the MIDlet abstract class must be implemented by a midlet:
  A.    initApp, startApp
  B.    startApp, destroyApp
  C.    startApp, pauseApp, destroyApp
  D.    initApp, startApp, pauseApp, destroyApp
Ans: C

23. After compiling your midlet, you must process it with a command to ensure that it is valid before use by the Kilo virtual machine (KVM). What is the name of that command?
  A.    midp
  B.    javac-bootclasspath
  C.    preverify
  D.    jar
Ans: C

24. A Java Application Descriptor (JAD) file is a text file that is similar to a manifest, except that it is not packaged in a JAR file. Some of the shared attributes that must have identical values are: MIDlet-Name, MIDlet-Version, and MIDlet-Vendor. If any shared attributes are different, then:
  A.    The ones in the descriptor override those in the manifest
  B.    The ones in the manifest override those in the descriptor
Ans: A

25. When downloading application descriptors (.jad files) from a web server, the web server must return a MIME type of:
  A.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.midp
  B.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.jad
  C.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.app-descriptor
  D.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.midapp
Ans: C

26. A midlet suite is a set of midlets that are packed together into a single JAR file. Midlets within the same suite:
  A.     Can share the classes and resources contained in the JAR file
  B.     Cannot share the classes and resources contained in the JAR file
Ans: A

27. Midlets from different suites:
  A.     Can interact directly.
  B.    Cannot interact directly.
Ans: B

28. What is the difference between a configuration (such as the CLDC) and a profile (such as the MIDP)?
  A.    a configuration defines the set of class libraries available for a particular domain of devices, and a profile provides I/O and network APIs.
  B.    a configuration defines a vertical set of classes that a profile can use.
  C.    a configuration defines a minimum set of class libraries for a wide range of devices, and a profile defines the set of APIs available for a particular family of devices.
  D.    a profile is the foundation for a configuration.
Ans: C

29. All MIDP implementations are required to support what image format?
  A.    GIF
  B.    JPG
  C.    BMP
  D.    PNG
Ans: D

30. If a midlet needs to receive high-level events from the implementation, which interface should it implement?
  A.    ActionListener
  B.    CommandListener
  C.    Windows Listener
  D.    ChoiceListener
Ans: B

31. All MIDP GUI classes are contained in what package?
  A.    javax.microedition.gui
  B.    javax.microedition.lcd
  C.    javax.microedition.lcdui
  D.    javax.microedition.display
Ans: C

32. The MIDP user interface API is a subset of the AWT/ Project Swing libraries.
  A.     True
  B.    False
Ans: B

33. Which class would you use to write applications to access low-level input events or to issue graphics calls for drawing to the display?
  A.    Display
  B.    Command
  C.    Screen
  D.    Canvas
Ans: D

34. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Generic Connection framework:
  A.    The CLDC provides an implementation for the HTTP protocol.
  B.    All MIDP implementations must provide support for the HTTP protocol.
  C.    The MIDP provides implementation for datagram and socket connections.
  D.    The Connection interface is part of the java.net package.
Ans: B

35. The heart of the Generic Connection framework is:
  A.     javax.microedition.Connection
  B.    javax.microedition.Connector
  C.    javax.microedition.StreamConnection
  D.    javax.microedition.HttpConnection
Ans: B

36. What is the correct syntax, using the Generic Connection framework, to open an HTTP connection:
  A.    Connection c = Connection.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
  B.    Connector c = Connector.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
  C.    Connection c = Connector.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
  B.    Connector c = Connection.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
Ans: C

37. The MIDP provides a mechanism for MIDlets to persistently store data in a platform-dependent file and retrieve it later. This mechanism is:
  A.    Object Serialization
  B.    JDBC
  C.    RMS
  D.    ODBC
Ans: C

38. A Java virtual machine1 (JVM) supporting CLDC has no support for:
  A.    Floating point numbers
  B.    Reflection
  C.    JNI
  D.    All of the above
Ans: D

39. Which of the following non-exception classes are inherited from the Java 2 Standard Edition 1.3 java.util package by the CLDC:
  A.    Calendar, Date, Enumeration, Hashtable, Stack, Vector
  B.    Calendar, Date, Enumeration, Hashtable, Random, Stack, Timer, Vector
  C.    Calendar, Date, Enumeration, Hashtable, Stack, Vector, StringTokenzier
  D.    All of the java.util classes are inherited
Ans: B

40. Which of the following techniques can be used for wireless session tracking?
  A.    Cookies
  B.    URL Rewriting
  C.    Hidden Fields
  D.    None of the above
Ans: B

41. Which class would you use to write applications to access low-level input events or to issue graphics calls for drawing to the display?
A. Display
B. Command
C. Screen
D. None of these
Ans: C

42. Which one of the following methods of the MIDlet abstract class must be implemented by a midlet:
A.initApp, startApp
B.startApp, destroyApp
C.initApp, startApp, pauseApp, destroyApp
D. startApp, pauseApp, destroyApp
Ans: D WWW.PECET.ACSCHE.AC.IN

43. All MIDP GUI classes are contained in what package?
A. javax.microedition.gui
B. javax.microedition.lcd
C. javax.microedition.lcdui
D. javax.microedition.display
Ans: C

44. Which of the following techniques can be used for wireless session tracking?
A. Cookies
B. URL Rewriting
C. Hidden Fields
D. None of the above
Ans: B

45. A midlet is a Java class that extends the abstract class:
A. javax.microedition.MIDlet
B. javax.microedition.midlet
C. javax.microedition.midlet.MIDlet
D. javax.microedition.midlet.midlet
Ans: C

46. All MIDP implementations are required to support what image format?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. BMP
D. PNG
Ans: D

47.The heart of the Generic Connection framework is:
A. javax.microedition.Connection
B. javax.microedition.Connector
C. javax.microedition.StreamConnection
D. javax.microedition.HttpConnection
Ans: C

48. If a midlet needs to receive high-level events from the implementation, which interface should it implement?
A. ActionListener
B. CommandListener
C. Windows Listener
D. ChoiceListener
Ans: B

49. A Java virtual machine1 (JVM) supporting CLDC has no support for:
A. Floating point numbers
B. Reflection
C. JNI
D. All of the above
Ans: D

50. The MIDP user interface API is a subset of the AWT/ Project Swing libraries.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

51. A midlet is a Java class that extends the abstract class:
A.    javax.microedition.MIDlet
B.    javax.microedition.midlet
C.    javax.microedition.midlet.MIDlet
D.    javax.microedition.midlet.midlet
Ans: C

52. Which one of the following methods of the MIDlet abstract class must be implemented by a midlet:
A.    initApp, startApp
B.    startApp, destroyApp
C.    startApp, pauseApp, destroyApp
D.    initApp, startApp, pauseApp, destroyApp
Ans: C

53. After compiling your midlet, you must process it with a command to ensure that it is valid before use by the Kilo virtual machine (KVM). What is the name of that command?
A.    midp
B.    javac-bootclasspath
C.    preverify
D.    jar
Ans: C

54. A Java Application Descriptor (JAD) file is a text file that is similar to a manifest, except that it is not packaged in a JAR file. Some of the shared attributes that must have identical values are: MIDlet-Name, MIDlet-Version, and MIDlet-Vendor.
A.    The ones in the descriptor override those in the manifest
B.    The ones in the manifest override those in the descriptor
 Ans: A

55. When downloading application descriptors (.jad files) from a web server, the web server must return a MIME type of:
A.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.midp
B.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.jad
C.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.app-descriptor
D.    text/vnd.sun.j2me.midapp
Ans: C

56. A midlet suite is a set of midlets that are packed together into a single JAR file. Midlets within the same suite:
A.    Can share the classes and resources contained in the JAR file
B.    Cannot share the classes and resources contained in the JAR file
Ans: A

57. Midlets from different suites:
A.    Can interact directly.
B.    Cannot interact directly.
Ans: B

58. What is the difference between a configuration (such as the CLDC) and a profile (such as the MIDP)?
A.    a configuration defines the set of class libraries available for a particular domain of devices, and a profile provides I/O and network APIs.
B.    a configuration defines a vertical set of classes that a profile can use.
C.    a configuration defines a minimum set of class libraries for a wide range of devices, and a profile defines the set of APIs available for a particular family of devices.
D.    a profile is the foundation for a configuration.
Ans: C

59. All MIDP implementations are required to support what image format?
A.    GIF
B.    JPG
C.    BMP
D.    PNG
Ans: D

60. If a midlet needs to receive high-level events from the implementation, which interface should it implement?
A.    ActionListener
B.    CommandListener
C.    Windows Listener
D.    ChoiceListener
Ans: B

61. All MIDP GUI classes are contained in what package?
A.    javax.microedition.gui
B.    javax.microedition.lcd
C.    javax.microedition.lcdui
D.    javax.microedition.display
Ans: C

62. The MIDP user interface API is a subset of the AWT/ Project Swing libraries.
A.    True
B.    False
Ans: B

63. Which class would you use to write applications to access low-level input events or to issue graphics calls for drawing to the display?
A.    Display
B.    Command
C.    Screen
D.    Screen
Ans: D

64. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Generic Connection framework:
A.    The CLDC provides an implementation for the HTTP protocol.
B.    All MIDP implementations must provide support for the HTTP protocol.
C.    The MIDP provides implementation for datagram and socket connections.
D.    The Connection interface is part of the java.net package.
Ans: B

65. The heart of the Generic Connection framework is:
A.    javax.microedition.Connection
B.    javax.microedition.Connector
C.    javax.microedition.StreamConnection
D.    javax.microedition.HttpConnection
Ans: B

66. What is the correct syntax, using the Generic Connection framework, to open an HTTP connection:
A.    Connection c = Connection.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
B.    Connector c = Connector.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
C.    Connection c = Connector.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
D.    Connector c = Connection.open("http://developer.java.sun.com");
Ans: C

67. The MIDP provides a mechanism for MIDlets to persistently store data in a platform-dependent file and retrieve it later. This mechanism is:
A.    JDBC
B.    RMS
C.    ODBC
Ans: C

68. A Java virtual machine1 (JVM) supporting CLDC has no support for:
A.    Floating point numbers
B.    Reflection
C.    JNI
D.    All of the above
Ans: D

69. Which of the following non-exception classes are inherited from the Java 2 Standard Edition 1.3 java.util package by the CLDC:
A.    Calendar, Date, Enumeration, Hashtable, Stack, Vector
B.    Calendar, Date, Enumeration, Hashtable, Random, Stack, Timer, Vector
C.    Calendar, Date, Enumeration, Hashtable, Stack, Vector, StringTokenzier
D.    All of the java.util classes are inherited
Ans: B

70. Which of the following techniques can be used for wireless session tracking?
A.    Cookies
B.    URL Rewriting
C.    Hidden Fields
D.    None of the above
Ans: B

60 Top JavaScript Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 60 JavaScript multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced PDF.

JavaScript Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1.  Why so JavaScript and Java have similar name?
A.  JavaScript is a stripped-down version of Java
B.  JavaScript's syntax is loosely based on Java's
C.  They both originated on the island of Java
D.  None of the above
Ans: B

2.  When a user views a page containing a JavaScript program, which machine actually executes the script?
A.  The User's machine running a Web browser
B.   The Web server
C.  A central machine deep within Netscape's corporate offices
D.  None of the above
Ans:  A

3.  ______ JavaScript is also called client-side JavaScript.
A.  Microsoft
B.  Navigator
C.  LiveWire
D.  Native
Ans: B

4.  __________ JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.
A.  Microsoft
B.   Navigator
C.  LiveWire
D.  Native
 Ans: C

5.  What are variables used for in JavaScript Programs?
A.  Storing numbers, dates, or other values
B.   Varying randomly
C.  Causing high-school algebra flashbacks
D.  None of the above
 Ans: A

6.  _____ JavaScript statements embedded in an HTML page can respond to user events such as mouse-clicks, form input, and page navigation.
A.  Client-side
B.   Server-side
C.  Local
D.  Native
 Ans: A

7.  What should appear at the very end of your JavaScript?
The <script LANGUAGE="JavaScript">tag
A.   The </script>
B.    The <script>
C.  The END statement
D.  None of the above
Ans: A

8.  Which of the following can't be done with client-side JavaScript?
A.  Validating a form
B.   Sending a form's contents by email
C.  Storing the form's contents to a database file on the server
D.  None of the above
 Ans: C

9.  Which of the following are capabilities of functions in JavaScript?
A.  Return a value
B.   Accept parameters and Return a value
C.  Accept parameters
D.  None of the above
 Ans: C

10.  Which of the following is not a valid JavaScript variable name?
A.  2names
B.   _first_and_last_names
C.  FirstAndLast
D.  None of the above
 Ans: A

11.  ______ tag is an extension to HTML that can enclose any number of JavaScript statements.
A.  <SCRIPT>
B.   <BODY>
C.  <HEAD>
D.  <TITLE>
 Ans: A

12.  How does JavaScript store dates in a date object?
A.  The number of milliseconds since January 1st, 1970
B.   The number of days since January 1st, 1900
C.  The number of seconds since Netscape's public stock offering.
D.  None of the above
 Ans: A

13.  Which of the following attribute can hold the JavaScript version?
A.  LANGUAGE
B.   SCRIPT
C.  VERSION
D.  None of the above
 Ans: A

14.  What is the correct JavaScript syntax to write "Hello World"?
A.  System.out.println("Hello World")
B.   println ("Hello World")
C.  document.write("Hello World")
D.  response.write("Hello World")
 Ans: C

15.  Which of the following way can be used to indicate the LANGUAGE attribute?
A.  <LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
B.   <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
C.  <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">    JavaScript statements…</SCRIPT>
D.  <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion"!>    JavaScript statements…</SCRIPT>
 Ans: C

16.  Inside which HTML element do we put the JavaScript?
A.  <js>
B.   <scripting>
C.  <script>
D.  <javascript>
Ans: C

17.  What is the correct syntax for referring to an external script called " abc.js"?
A.  <script href=" abc.js">
B.   <script name=" abc.js">
C.  <script src=" abc.js">
D.  None of the above
 Ans: C

18.  Which types of image maps can be used with JavaScript?
A.  Server-side image maps
B.  Client-side image maps
C.  Server-side image maps and Client-side image maps
D.  None of the above
 Ans: B

19.  Which of the following navigator object properties is the same in both   Netscape and IE?
A.  navigator.appCodeName
B.   navigator.appName
C.  navigator.appVersion
D.  None of the above
 Ans: A

20.  Which is the correct way to write a JavaScript array?
A.  var txt = new Array(1:"tim",2:"kim",3:"jim")
B.   var txt = new Array:1=("tim")2=("kim")3=("jim")
C.  var txt = new Array("tim","kim","jim")
D.  var txt = new Array="tim","kim","jim"
Ans: C

21.  What does the <noscript> tag do?
A.  Enclose text to be displayed by non-JavaScript browsers.
B.   Prevents scripts on the page from executing.
C.  Describes certain low-budget movies.
D.  None of the above
 Ans: A

22. If para1 is the DOM object for a paragraph, what is the correct syntax to change the text within the paragraph?
A.  "New Text"?
B.  para1.value="New Text";
C.  para1.firstChild.nodeValue= "New Text";
D.  para1.nodeValue="New Text";
Ans: B

23.  JavaScript entities start with _______ and end with _________.
A.  Semicolon, colon
B.   Semicolon, Ampersand
C.  Ampersand, colon
D.  Ampersand, semicolon
 Ans: D

24.  Which of the following best describes JavaScript?
A.  a low-level programming language.
B.   a scripting language precompiled in the browser.
C.  a compiled scripting language.
D.  an object-oriented scripting language.
 Ans: D

25.  Choose the server-side JavaScript object?
A.  FileUpLoad
B.   Function
C.  File
D.  Date
Ans: C
 
26.  Choose the client-side JavaScript object?
A.  Database
B.   Cursor
C.  Client
D.  FileUpLoad
Ans: D
 
27.  Which of the following is not considered a JavaScript operator?
A.  new
B.  this
C.  delete
D.  typeof
 Ans: B

28.  ______method evaluates a string of JavaScript code in the context of the specified object.
A.  Eval
B.   ParseInt
C.  ParseFloat
D.  Efloat
 Ans: A

29.  Which of the following event fires when the form element loses the focus: <button>, <input>, <label>, <select>, <textarea>?
A.  onfocus
B.  onblur
C.  onclick
D.  ondblclick
 Ans: B

30.  The syntax of Eval is ________________
A.  [objectName.]eval(numeriC.
B.  [objectName.]eval(string)
C.  [EvalName.]eval(string)
D.  [EvalName.]eval(numeriC.
Ans: B

31.  JavaScript is interpreted by _________
A.  Client
B.   Server
C.  Object
D.  None of the above
Ans: A

32.  Using _______ statement is how you test for a specific condition.
A.  Select
B.  If
C.  Switch
D.  For
 Ans: B

33.  Which of the following is the structure of an if statement?
A.  if (conditional expression is true) thenexecute this codeend if
B.   if (conditional expression is true)execute this codeend if
C.  if (conditional expression is true)   {then execute this code>->}
D.  if (conditional expression is true) then {execute this code}
Ans: C

34.  How to create a Date object in JavaScript?
A.  dateObjectName = new Date([parameters])
B.   dateObjectName.new Date([parameters])
C.  dateObjectName := new Date([parameters])
D.  dateObjectName Date([parameters])
 Ans: A

35.  The _______ method of an Array object adds and/or removes elements from an array.
A.  Reverse
B.   Shift
C.  Slice
D.  Splice
 Ans: D

36.  To set up the window to capture all Click events, we use which of the following statement?
A.  window.captureEvents(Event.CLICK);
B.   window.handleEvents (Event.CLICK);
C.  window.routeEvents(Event.CLICK );
D.  window.raiseEvents(Event.CLICK );
 Ans: A

37.  Which tag(s) can handle mouse events in Netscape?
A.  <IMG>
B.  <A>
C.  <BR>
D.  None of the above
 Ans: B

38.  ____________ is the tainted property of a window object.
A.  Pathname
B.   Protocol
C.  Defaultstatus
D.  Host
 Ans: C

39.  To enable data tainting, the end user sets the _________ environment variable.
A.  ENABLE_TAINT
B.   MS_ENABLE_TAINT
C.  NS_ENABLE_TAINT
D.  ENABLE_TAINT_NS
 Ans: C

40.  In JavaScript, _________ is an object of the target language data type that encloses an object of the source language.
A.  a wrapper
B.   a link
C.  a cursor
D.  a form
Ans: A

41.  When a JavaScript object is sent to Java, the runtime engine creates a Java wrapper of type ___________
A.  ScriptObject
B.  JSObject
C.  JavaObject
D.  Jobject
Ans: B

42.  _______ class provides an interface for invoking JavaScript methods and examining JavaScript properties.
A.  ScriptObject
B.  JSObject
C.  JavaObject
D.  Jobject
 Ans: B

43.  _________ is a wrapped Java array, accessed from within JavaScript code.
A.  JavaArray
B.   JavaClass
C.  JavaObject
D.  JavaPackage
 Ans:  A
  
44. A ________ object is a reference to one of the classes in a Java package, such as netscape.javascript .
A.  JavaArray
B.  JavaClass
C.  JavaObject
D.  JavaPackage
 Ans: B

45.  The JavaScript exception is available to the Java code as an instance of __________
A.  netscape.javascript.JSObject
B.  netscape.javascript.JSException
C.  netscape.plugin.JSException
D.  None of the above
Ans: B

46. To automatically open the console when a JavaScript error occurs which of the following is added to prefs.js?
A.  user_pref(" javascript.console.open_on_error", false);
B.   user_pref("javascript.console.open_error ", true);
C.  user_pref("javascript.console.open_error ", false);
D.   user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error", true);
Ans: D

47.  To open a dialog box each time an error occurs, which of the following is added to prefs.js?
A.  user_pref("javascript.classic.error_alerts", true);
B.   user_pref("javascript.classic.error_alerts ", false);
C.  user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error ", true);
D.  user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error ", false);
 Ans: A

48.  The syntax of a blur method in a button object is ______________
A.  Blur()
B.   Blur(contrast)
C.  Blur(value)
D.  Blur(depth)
 Ans: A

49.  The syntax of capture events method for document object is ______________
A.  captureEvents()
B.   captureEvents(args eventType)
C.  captureEvents(eventType)
D.  captureEvents(eventVal)
 Ans: C

50.  The syntax of close method for document object is ______________
A.  Close(doC.
B.   Close(object)
C.  Close(val)
D.  Close()
Ans: D

51. <script type="text/javascript">
x=4+"4";
document.write(x);
</script>

Output------?
A. 44
B. 8
C. 4
D. Error output
Ans: A

52. Is it possible to nest functions in JavaScript?
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

53. <script>
document.write(navigator.appCodeName);
</script>
A. get code name of the browser of a visitor
B. set code name of the browser of a visitor
C. None of the above
Ans: A

54. Scripting language are
A. High Level Programming language
B. Assembly Level programming language
C. Machine level programming language
Ans: A

55. Which best explains getSelection()?
A. Returns the VALUE of a selected OPTION.
B. Returns document.URL of the window in focus.
C. Returns the value of cursor-selected text
D. Returns the VALUE of a checked radio input.
Ans: C

56. Choose the client-side JavaScript object:
A. Database
B. Cursor
C. Client
D. FileUpLoad
Ans: D

57. What is mean by "this" keyword in javascript?
A. It refers current object
B. It referes previous object
C. It is variable which contains value
D. None of the above
Ans: A

58. In JavaScript, Window.prompt() method return true or false value ?
A. False
B. True
Ans: A

59. <script language="javascript">
function x()
{
document.write(2+5+"8");
}
</script>
A. 258
B. Error
C. 7
D. 78
Ans: D

60. <script type="text/javascript">
var s = "9123456 or 80000?";
var pattern = /\d{4}/;
var output = s.match(pattern);
document.write(output);
</script>
A. 9123
B. 91234
C. 80000
D. None of the above
Ans: A


100 Top XML Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 100 XML multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced pdf.

XML Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. What does XML stand for?
A. eXtra Modern Link
B. eXtensible Markup Language
C. Example Markup Language
D. X-Markup Language
Ans: B

2. What is the correct syntax of the declaration which defines the XML version?:
A. <xml version="A.0" />
B. <?xml version="A.0"?>
C. <?xml version="A.0" />
D. None of the above
Ans: B

3. Which statement is true?
A. All the statements are true
B. All XML elements must have a closing tag
C. All XML elements must be lower case
D. All XML documents must have a DTD
Ans: B

4. Is it easier to process XML than HTML?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Somtimes
D. Cant say
Ans: A

5. Which of the following programs support XML or XML applications?:
A. Internet Explorer 5.5
B. Netscape D.7
C. RealPlayer.
D. both A and B
Ans: D

6. Kind of Parsers are
A. well-formed
B. well-documented
C. non-validating and validating
D. none of the above
Ans: C

7. Well formed XML document means
A. it contains a root element
B. it contain an element
C. it contains one or more elements
D. must contain one or more elements and root element must contain all other elements
Ans: D

8. Comment in XML document is given by
A. <?-- -->
B. <!-- --!>
C. <!-- -->
D. </-- -- >
Ans: C

9. When processing an output XML, "new line" symbols
A. are copied into output "as is", i.e. "CR+LF" for Windows, CR for Macintosh, LF for Unix.
B. are converted to single LF symbol
C. are converted to single CR symbol
D. are discarded
Ans: B

10. Which of the following strings are a correct XML name?
A. _myElement
B. my Element
C. #myElement
D. None of the above
Ans: A

11. Which of the following strings are a correct XML name?
A. xmlExtension
B. xslNewElement
C. XMLElement#123
D. All
Ans: B

12. Which of the following XML fragments are well-formed?
A. <?xml?>
B. <?xml version="A.0"?>
C. <?xml encoding="JIS"?>
D. <?xml encoding="JIS" version="A.0"?>
Ans: B

13. What are the predefined attributes
A. xml:lang
B. xml:space
C. both
D. none.
Ans: C

14. Kind of Parsers are
A. well-formed
B. validating
C. non-validating
D. Both B & C
Ans: D

15. Valid XML document means (most appropriate)
A. the document has root element
B. the document contains atleast one or more root element
C. the XML document has DTD associated with it & it complies with that DTD
D. Each element must nest inside any enclosing element property
Ans: C

16. XML uses the features of
A. HTML
B. XHTML
C. VML
D. SGML
Ans: D

17. XML document can be viewed in
A. IE C.0
B. IE B.0
C. IE 6.0
D. IE X.0
Ans: C

18. There is a way of describing XML data, how?
A. XML uses a DTD to describe the data
B. XML uses XSL to describe data
C. XML uses a description node to describe data
D. Both A and C
Ans: D

19. What does DTD stand for?
A. Direct Type Definition
B. Document Type Definition
C. Do The Dance
D. Dynamic Type Definition
Ans: B

20. DTD includes the specifications about the markup that can be used within the document, the specifications consists of all EXCEPT
A. the browser name
B. the size of element name
C. entity declarations
D. element declarations
Ans: A

21. Which of the following XML documents are well-formed?
A. <firstElement>some text goes here
<secondElement>another text goes here</secondElement>
</firstElement>
B. <firstElement>some text goes here</firstElement>
<secondElement> another text goes here</secondElement>
C. <firstElement>some text goes here
<secondElement> another text goes here</firstElement>
</secondElement>
D. </firstElement>some text goes here
</secondElement>another text goes here
<firstElement>
Ans: B

22. Which of the following XML fragments are well-formed?
A. <myElement myAttribute="someValue"/>
B. <myElement myAttribute=someValue/>
C. <myElement myAttribute=’someValue’>
D. <myElement myAttribute="someValue’/>
Ans: A

23. How can we make attributes have multiple values:
A. <myElement myAttribute="value1 value2"/>
B. <myElement myAttribute="value1" myAttribute="value2"/>
C. <myElement myAttribute="value1, value2"/>
D. attributes cannot have multiple values
Ans: D

24. Which of the following XML fragments are well-formed?
A. <myElement myAttribute="value1 <= value2"/>
B. <myElement myAttribute="value1 & value2"/>
C. <myElement myAttribute="value1 > value2"/>
D. None of the above
Ans: C

25. The use of a DTD in XML development is:
A. required when validating XML documents
B. no longer necessary after the XML editor has been customized
C. used to direct conversion using an XSLT processor
D. a good guide to populating a templates to be filled in when generating an XML document automatically
Ans: A

26. Parameter entities can appear in
A. xml file
B. dtd file
C. xsl file
D. Both 1 and 2
Ans: B

27. Attribute standalone="no" should be included in XML declaration if a document:
A. is linked to an external XSL stylesheet
B. has external general references
C. has processing instructions
D. has an external DTD
Ans: D

28. In XML
A. the internal DTD subset is read before the external DTD
B. the external DTD subset is read before the internal DTD
C. there is no external type of DTD
D. there is no internal type of DTD
Ans: A

29. Disadvantages of DTD are
(i)DTDs are not extensible
(ii)DTDs are not in to support for namespaces
(iii)there is no provision for inheritance from one DTDs to another

A. (i) is correct
B. (i),(ii) are correct
C. (ii),(iii) are correct
D. (i),(ii),(iii) are correct
Ans: D

30. To use the external DTD we have the syntax
A. <?xml version=”A.0” standalone=”no”?>
<! DOCTYPE DOCUMENT SYSTEM “order.dtd”?>
B. <?xml version=”A.0” standalone=”yes”?>
<! DOCTYPE DOCUMENT SYSTEM “order.dtd”?>
(3 )<?xml version=”A.0” standalone=”no”?>
<! DOCTYPE DOCUMENT “order.dtd”?>
D. <?xml version=”A.0” standalone=”yes”?>
<! DOCTYPE DOCUMENT SYSTEM “order.dtd”?>
Ans: A

31. To add the attribute named Type to the <customer> tag the syntax will be
A. <customer attribute Type=”exelent”>
B. <customer Type attribute =”exelent”>
C. <customer Type attribute_type=”exelent”>
D. <customer Type=” exelent” >
Ans: D

32. The syntax for parameter entity is
A. <! ENTITY % NAME DEFINITION>
B. < ENTITY % NAME DEFINITION>
C. <! ENTITY $ NAME DEFINITION>
D. < ENTITY % NAME DEFINITION>
Ans: A

33. You can name the schema using the name attribute like
A. <schema attribute=”schema1”>
B. <schema nameattribute=”schema1”>
C. <schema nameattri=”schema1”>
D. <schema name=”schema1”>
Ans: D

34. The default model for complex type, in XML schemas for element is
A. textOnly
B. elementOnly
C. no default type
D. both 1 & 2
Ans: B

35. Microsoft XML Schema Data types for Hexadecimal digits representating octates
A. UID
B. UXID
C. UUID
D. XXID
Ans: C

36. A schema describes
(i) grammer
(ii) vocabulary
(iii) structure
(iv) datatype of XML document

A. (i) & (ii) are correct
B. (i),(iii) ,(iv) are correct
C. (i),(ii),(iv) are correct
D. (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) are correct
Ans: D

37. Microsoft XML Schema Data Type “ boolean” has values
A. True ,False
B. True ,False or 1,0
C. 1,0
D. any number other then zero and zero
Ans: C

38. Simple type Built into Schema “ data’ represent a data in
A. MM-DD-YY
B. Dd-MM-YY
C. YY-MM-DD
D. YYYY-MM-DD
Ans: D

39. In simple Type Built into XML schema Boolean type holds
A. True, False
B. 1,0
C. both A. & B.
D. True/False and any number except 0
Ans: C

40. In simple type built into XML schema type flat has single precision of ________ floating point
A. 16 bit
B. 32 bit
C. 8 bit
D. 4 bit
Ans: C

41. The XML DOM object is
A. Entity
B. Entity Reference
C. Comment Reference
D. Comment Data
Ans: B

42.Attribute of the document interface in DOM is/are
(i)doctype
(ii)implementation
(iii)documentElement
which are read only attributes
A. (i) only
B. (ii) only
C. (ii),(iii) only
D. all
Ans: D

43. The default model for complex type, in XML schemas for element is
A. textOnly
B. elementOnly
C. no default type
D. both a & b
Ans: B

44. To create a choise in XML schemas, we use the
A. <xsd:select> element
B. <xsd:multi> element
C. <xsd:choise> element
D. <xsd:single> element
Ans: C

45. The XML DOM object is
A. Entity
B. Entity Reference
C. Comment Reference
D. Comment Data
Ans: B

46. To create a data island we use the _____________HTML element
A. <XML>
B. <dataisland>
C. <Island>
D. <XMLIsland>
Ans: A

47. To Bind the HTML elements with DSO we use _________ attribute
A. DATASOURCE
B. DATAFIELD
C. DATASRC
D. DATAFLD
Ans: A,C

48. To bind the HTML element <INPUT> Type in text with the datasource “ dsoCustomer” we use
A. <INPUT TYPE=”TEXT” DATAFIELD=”#dsoCustomer”>
B. <INPUT TYPE=”TEXT” DATASRC=” dsoCustomer”>
C. <INPUT TYPE=”TEXT” DATASRC=” #dsoCustomer” >
D. <INPUT TYPE=”TEXT” DATAFLD=” #dsoCustomer”>
Ans: C

49. XML DSOs has the property for the number of pages of data the recordset contains
A. count
B. number
C. pageCount
D. pageNumber
Ans: C

50. Whats so great about XML?
A. Easy data exchange
B. High speed on network
C. Only B.is correct
D. Both A. & B.
Ans: D

51. For XML document to be valid
A. document need to be well formed also
B. document need not to be well formed
C. document need to be well formed & valid
D. document validity has no relationship with well formedness
Ans: C

52. A textual object is a well formed XML document if
(i) Taken as a whole it matches the production labeled document.
(ii) Each of the parsed entity which is referenced directly or indirectly within the document can be well formed

A. (i) is correct
B. (ii)is correct
C. both are correct
Ans: C

53. <?xml version=” A.0” standalone=” yes” encoding=”UTF-8” ?>
A. it shows that the version is A.0
B. shows thatit is standalone
C. the standalone is wrong
D. version attribute is not in XML
Ans: C

54. The attribute used to define a new namespace is
A. XMLNS
B. XmlNameSpace
C. Xmlns
D. XmlNs
Ans: C

55. To match the root node in XMLT transform the syntax will be
A. <xsl:template match=”Document”>
B. <xsl:template match=”Root”>
C. <xsl:template match=”RootNode”>
D. <xsl:template match=” /”>
Ans: D

56. To match the specific XML elements child like of parent element is the syntax will be
A. <xsl:template match=”PLANET_NAME”>
B.<xsl:template match=”PLANET/NAME”>
C. <xsl:template match=”/NAME”>
D. <xsl:template match=”//”>
Ans: B

57. PI in XML specification stands for
A. C.14
B. priceless instruction
C. processing instruction
D. polymorphic inheritance
Ans: C

58. A validating XML application should be used when:
A. the design demands that all elements use both start and end tags
B. missing or out-of-place elements could cause application errors
C. attribute values cannot refer to external entity references
D. High performance is an important architectural constraint
Ans: B

59. A DSO operates like
(a) data simulation object at server side
(b) dynamic source object at client side
(c) data source object at client side
(d) data simulation object at client side
Ans: C

60. The XSL formating object use to format a list is
A. list-block
B. list-item
C. list-item-body
D. list-item-label
Ans: A

61. The attribute used to define a new namespace is
A. XMLNS
B. XmlNameSpace
C. Xmlns
D. XmlNs
Ans: C

62. Identify the most accurate statement about the application of XML:
A. XML must be used to produce XML and HTML output.
B. XML cannot specify or contain presentation information.
C. XML is used to describe hierarchically organized information.
D. XML performs the conversion of information between different e-business applications.
Ans: C

63. The XSl formatting object which formats the data and caption of a table is
A. table
B. table-content
C. table-text
D. none of the above
Ans: D

64. The XSL formating object which holds the content of the table body
A. table
B. table-body
C. table-content
D. table-footer
Ans: B

65. The XSL formatting object which formats the data in a table
A. table
B. table-body
C. title
D. table-content
Ans: A

66. The XSL formating object use to hold the content of the label of a list item is
A. list-block
B. list item
C. list-item-body
D. list-item-label
Ans: D

67. The XSL formating object use to hold the contents of the body of a list item is
A. list-block
B. list item
C. list-item-body
D. list-item-label
Ans: C

68. XSL has formatting object “ block”
A. is not supported in XSL
B. generates a block level reference area
C. create a display block
D. groups global declarations for a style sheet
Ans: B

69. XSL has “ block container” for formating the document
A. to create a display block to format the titles
B. to create a display block to format the paragraphes
C. to create a display block to format the headlines & figures
D. to create a block level reference area
Ans: D

70. The syntax for writing the minimum occurrence for an element is
A. <xsd:element ref=” note” min=” 0” />
B. <xsd:elements ref=” note” min=” 0” />
C. <xsd:elements ref=” note” minOccur=”0” />
D. <xsd:elements ref=” note” minOccurs=” 0” />
Ans: D

71. The syntax for writing default values for element is
A. <xsd:element name=”max” type=” xsd:integer” value=” 100” />
B. <xsd:element name=”max” type=” xsd:integer” fixValue=” 100” />
C. <xsd:element name=”max” type=” xsd:integer” default=” 100” />
D. <xsd:element name=”max” type=” xsd:integer” defaultval=” 100” />
Ans: C

72. To use XSLT in an XML system:
A. the input and output of the XSLT processor must be unparsed XML documents
B. the input and output of the XSLT processor must be a hierarchical tree representing an XML document
C. the XSLT processor must be called from a web agent
D. the XSLT processor must be given the DTD as well as the XML document instance
Ans: B

73. What is the role of the XPath language in XSL processing?
A. XPath identifies the order or path of processing to be followed as the XSL language is processed
B. XPath identifies locations in XML data to be transformed in the source tree and the locations to be generated in output tree specified in XSL translation prescriptions
C. XPath identifies the path to be followed in the execution of XSL translation prescriptions
D. XPath specifies which XSL transform files are to be used in the translation of XML
Ans: B

74. Which statement correctly describes the capabilities of the XSLT language?
A. XSLT uses the DTD to determine how XML documents will be translated
B. XSLT specifies how a hierarchical trees, representable by an XML document may be translated into non-hierarchical formats
C. XSLT specifies how a hierarchical tree, representable by an XML document, may be translated into another hierarchical tree, also representable by an XML document
D. XSLT specifies the formatting style to be used to render an XML document
Ans: C

75. XSLT processors accept as input:
A. an XML conforming document file and an XSLT specification file
B. only an XML document
C. only an XSLT specification
D. either an XML document or an XSLT specification
Ans: A

76. The transformation of XML document in to another type of document by XSLT can be done by

(i)In the server
(ii)In the client
(iii)With a separate program

A. only(i) & (ii)
B. only (ii) & (iii)
C. all are correct
D. only (i) & (iii)
Ans: C

77: To match the root node in XMLT transform the syntax will be

A. <xsl:template match=”Document”>
B. <xsl:template match=”Root”>
C. <xsl:template match=”RootNode”>
D. <xsl:template match=” /” >
Ans: D

78: To match the specific XML elements in XMLT the syntax for given name “ rootnode” is

A. <xsl:template match=” root”>
B. <xsl:template match=” /”>
C. <xsl:template match=” rootnode” >
D. <xsl:template match=” //”>
Ans: C

79. To match the specific XML elements child like of parent element is the syntax will be

A. <xsl:template match=”PLANET_NAME”>
B. <xsl:template match=” PLANET/NAME” >
C. <xsl:template match=” /NAME”>
D. <xsl:template match=” //”>
Ans: B

80. InXSLT style sheet we have syntax to match elements with id as (if id is “ change” )

A. <xsl:template match=” id(‘change’)” >
B. <xsl:template match=” (change)”>
C. <xsl:template match=” change”>
D. <xsl:template match-id=”Change”>
Ans: A

81. To match the text node (in XSLT) the syntax will be

A. <xsl:template match=” text”>
B. <xsl:template match-text=” text”>
C. <xsl:template match=text( )>
D. <xsl:template match=” text( )” >
Ans: D

82. An element declaration specifies

A. a single markup element
B. zmarkup elements
C. markup data
D. the document data
Ans: A

83. Well formed XML document means(most appropriate)

A. it contains a root element
B. it contain an element
C. it contains one or more elements
D. must contain one or more elements and root element must contain all other elements
Ans: D

84: Which of the following specify that the order and content of "membership" is not important

A. <!ELEMENT membership NORULE>
B. <!ELEMENT membership EMPTY>
C. <!ELEMENT membership ALL>
D. <!ELEMENT membership ANY>
Ans: D

85: Which of the following is used to specify the attribute list of an element

A. ATTLIST
B. ?ATTLIST
C. !ATTLIST
D. #ATTLIST
Ans: C

86: Which of the following instruct the browser which stylesheet to use

A. <xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="cd.xsl">
B. <xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" xsl="cd.xsl">
C. <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="cd.xsl"?>
D. <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" xsl="cd.xsl"?>
Ans: C

88: Which of the following XSLT Patterns is used to match any descendant nodes
A. /
B. //
C. .
D. ..
Ans: B

89: Which of the following XSLT Patterns is used to match the parent node

A. /
B. //
C. .
D. ..
Ans: D

90: Which of the following is a valid XSLT iteration command

A. for
B. for-all
C. for-each
D. in-turn
Ans: C

91.What is an advantage of XML compared to HTML?

A. XML works on more platforms.
B. XML is suited to using Web pages as front ends to databases.
C. XML was designed for portable phones.
D. XML is simpler to learn than HTML.
Ans: B

92.The following best describes the development of XML.

A. XML developed from HTML because WEB browsers became more powerful.
B. XML is designed as a replacement because SGML can not be used for document development.
C. XML builds on HTMLs ability to provide content to virtually any audience by adding the power of intelligent content.
D. XML is the modern replacement for HTML and SGML, taking the good points from each, making both of those languages obsolete.
Ans: C

93. The correct priority for implementing XML based IETMs is :

A. Develop DTD, conduct a pilot project, create a modular library, train staff.
B. Train staff, convert legacy documents, develop DTD, create modular library.
C. Conduct pilot program, train staff, create modular library, develop DTD
D. Conduct pilot program, train staff, develop DTD, convert documents, purchace XML tools.
Ans: C

94. Which of the following statements is true:

A. XML is a direct subset of SGML
B. SGML is an application of HTML
C. XML is a kind of dynamic HTML
D. XHTML is XML rewritten in HTML
5. SGML and XML are the same thing
Ans: A

95. What is a qualified name?

A. Any name conforming to the XML Names specification
B. A name having prefix and local name separated by a colon
C. A name applying only to qualified elements and attributes
D. None of the above
Ans: C

96. What is a NCName

A. A Non-Common Name
B. A Non-Conforming Name
C. A Non-Colonized Name
D. None of the above
Ans: C

97. Which of the following statements about XML schemas is incorrect?
A. All XML documents must have a schema
B. Schemas can specify integer values
C. Schemas are defined by XSD tag
D. They offer more flexibility than DTDs
E. Schemas provide data oriented data types
Ans: A

98. What is the default namespace

A. The namespace used by default when no namespace is declared
B. The namespace used when two or more namespaces are referenced
C. A namespace that is referenced with the xmlns attribute, but without a prefix
D. None of the above
Ans: C

99.What is an XML namespace?

A. A set of names applied to specific spaces within an XML document, such as the head and body
B. A set of names representing a specific XML vocabulary
C. A set of names for XML documents pertaining to a particular vocabulary
D. None of the above.
Ans: B

100. From what set of names do NCNames derive?

A. Any combination of characters allowable in XML
B. Any names conforming to XML Names, minus the colon
C. Any names for elements and attributes within the DTD to which the namespace refers
D. None of the above.
Ans: B


100 Top Load Runner Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 100 load runner multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced pdf.

Load Runner Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1) Default Actions generated in a Load Runner Script are
A. Vuser_int, Actions, Vuser_end
B. Vuser , Actions
C. Vuser_initial, Actions , Vuser_ending
D. Vuser_start , Actions , Vuser_stop
Ans: Vuser_int, Actions, Vuser_end

2) Types of Checks supported by LR
A. Text Check
B. Image Check
C. All of the Above
Ans: All of the Above

3) Which Options (Settings) are available for scheduling a scenario ?
A. Ramp Up
B. Ramp Down
C. All of the Above
D. None Of The Above
Ans: All of the Above

4) Identify the corelation function
A. web_reg_save_param
B. web_reg_paam
C. web_reg_param_save
D. None Of The Above
Ans: web_reg_save_param

5) In Analyer, can graphs be corelated /overlayed?
A. YES
B. NO
Ans: YES

6) Which of the following function sends a message to the output winow
A. lr_output_message
B. lr_debug_message
C. lrd_stmt
D. lrd_fetch
Ans: lr_output_message

7) Which of the following is NOT a component of LR ?
A. Vuser Generator
B. Controller
C. Monitoring & Analysis
D. Performance Enhancer
Ans: Performance Enhancer

8) Which of the following is NOT a supported scripting language for Load Runner
A. .NET
B. C
C. C++
D. Java
Ans: .NET

9) Define -Think Time
A. emulates real life think times taken by user
B. emulates time taken by script to identify objects
C. emulates network issues
D. emulates script conversion time
Ans: A

10) Browsers supported by Load Runner -
A. IE
B. Mozilla FireFox
C. Opera
D. All Of The Above
Ans: D

11) What type of scenarios can be created in Load Runner
A. Manual Scenarios
B. Goal Oriented Scenarios
C. Both
Ans: C

12) Which methods can be used to fix Corelation problem ?
A. Snapshot Comparison
B. Vuser Comparison
C. Auto Corelation
D. All Of The Above
Ans: D

13) Can Load Runner be integrated with Quality Center and Quick Test Pro (QTP) ?
A. Only Quality Center
B. Only QTP
C. Both Quality Center & QTP
Ans: C

14) Which component of LR will be used play back a script in multi-user mode ?
A. Vuser
B. Controller
C. Analyzer
D. None Of The Above
Ans: B

15) LR records communication between Client & Server only but does not record screen actions performed by user
A. YES
B. NO
Ans: A

16) Select valid recording modes in LR
A. URL based
B. HTML based
C. Both
Ans: Both

17) Corelation problem is caused by
A. Static values sent by sever
B. Dynamic values sent by server
C. Passwords send by client
D. None Of The Above
Ans: B

18) Can a transaction contain another transaction ?
A. YES
B. NO
Ans: A

19) Which Options (Settings) are NOT part of run -time settings dialog box ?
A. Pacing
B. ExtendedThink Time
C. General
D. Reports
Ans: D

20) Does Load Runner Support Parametrization
A. YES
B. NO
C. Maybe. Only if scripts have corelation issues
Ans: A

10 Questions missed will be added soon...

31) What is the LoadRunner term that describes the time a user pauses between steps?
A.  Pacing
B.  User Delay
C.  Think time
D.  Navigation time
Ans: C

32) What is the first stage of load testing process?
A.  Plan the load test
B.  Create the scenario
C.  Execute the scenario
D.  Create VuGen scripts
Ans: A

33) When analyzing a technical aspect of a system under test, which group is a helpful source of information?
A.  End users
B.  Functional experts
C.  Application experts
D.  Corporate executives
Ans: C

34) Which file type has an extension .lrr?
A.  Script
B.  Results
C.  Analysis
D.  Scenario
Ans: B

35) You are a LoadRunner expert consultant and have been assigned to a client that needs to performance test an application that has not yet been released. How can you obtain information about the application anticipated load?
A.  Estimate how the application will be used
B.  Obtain the necessary information from web logs
C.  Look in the application’s database to determine the anticipated load
D.  Consult with the business experts to determine the anticipated load
Ans: D

36) Which LoadRunner component runs the vuser that generates the load?
A.  VuGen
B.  Analysis
C.  Controller
D.  Load Generator/host
Ans: D

37) You are running a 3-tier web application. With which component must the load generator(s) communicate?
A.  VuGen
B.  Analysis
C.  Controller
D.  Database server
Ans: C

38) Which statement is an example of a conceptual goal?
A.  The application’s update function should still work under heavy load
B.  The update transaction must attain 200 concurrent users during peak time
C.  The search transaction should respond within 5 seconds during normal usage
D.  The login transaction should respond within 4 seconds or less during heavy usage
Ans: A

39) Which term defines the end-to-end measurement of time when one or more steps are completed?
A.  Transaction.
B.  Action section
C.  Business Process
D.  Business Verification.
Ans:  A

40) During the analysis of a scenario, you realize that the hits per second become flat as Vusers continue to increase. What is likely to cause?
A.  A bandwidth problem
B.  A database server problem
C.  A web server connection problem
D.  An application server connection problem
Ans: C

41) Which scenario type helps you plan for future growth and provides a safety factor with the application?
A.  Debug
B.  Full Load
C.  Top Time
D.  Scalability
Ans: C

42) What is an example of a stress test?
A.  Purchasing at an e-commerce site
B.  Updating orders on a client/server system
C.  Viewing upcoming flight itineraries on a flight reservation application
D.  Displaying the home page immediately after a marketing promotion has been run
Ans: D

43) What is the first indication of a performance problem?
A.  The network delay time is above 15ms.
B.  The DNS is not resolving the machine name.
C.  The Web server's available memory drops below 1 GB.
D.  The end user experiences higher than expected response time
Ans: D

44) You are meeting a new LoadRunner customer. The application under test is a call center application used by the customer representatives. The representatives are located in Phoenix, AZ and Columbus, OH. A large customer base resides in Flagstaff, AZ an
A.  Phoenix, AZ
B.  Flagstaff, AZ
C.  Cincinnati, OH
D.  Washington, DC
Ans: A

45) Which file defines the Vusers to execute, the number of Vusers to run, the goals of the test, the computer that hosts the Vusers, and the conditions under which to run the load test?
A.  Script
B.  Group
C.  Session
D.  Scenario
Ans: D

46) What is an external data source?
A.  User ID
B.  Password
C.  E-mail address
D.  Purchase order number
Ans: D

47) What are the main types of service level agreements available in the Controller and Analysis?
A.  Per Time Interval
B.  Errors per Second
C.  Average Hits per Run
D.  Average Throughput per Run
Ans: A

48) Which performance test objective is met when determining the cause of performance degradation?
A.  Reliability
B.  Regression
C.  Acceptance
D.  Bottleneck identification
Ans: D

49) What is NOT an advantages of using automated load tests over manual load tests?
A.  Repeatability
B.  Easier to scale
C.  Improved validity
D.  Increased hardware resources
Ans: D

50) Which tool is used to manage and maintain a scenario?
A.  VuGen
B.  Analysis
C.  Controller
D.  Load generator
Ans: C

51) Which Analysis graph details transaction response times throughout the test?
A.  Transactions per Second
B.  Average Transaction Response Time
C.  Transaction Response Time Under Load
D.  Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Ans: B

52) Which types of reports can be automatically generated in the Analysis tool?
A.  Adobe PDF
B.  MS Excel
C.  MS Word
D.  Crystal Report
Ans: A

53) Which graph can analyze each web page component's relative server and network time?
A.  Throughput
B.  Windows Resources
C.  Time to First Buffer Breakdown
D.  Transaction Performance Summary
Ans: C

54) What does the image shown in the exhibit represent?
A.  Auto Correlation
B.  Service Level Agreement
C.  Transaction Performance Summary
D.  Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Ans:  B

55) Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to focus on a specific measurement within your graph?
A.  Drill Down
B.  Apply Filter
C.  Merge Graphs
D.  Auto Correlate
Ans: A

56) Which Analysis graph identifies web pages that take the most time; isolates where time is spent; and helps in identifying DNS resolution, SSL, and connection issues?
A.  Windows Resource
B.  Network Delay Time
C.  Time to First Buffer Breakdown
D.  Page Download Time Breakdown
Ans: D

57) You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current number?
A.  Press the STOP button on the Controller's main window
B.  Press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph
C.  Select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping
D.  Select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button
Ans: B

58) During the run of a scenario, which LoadRunner component stores the performance monitoring data?
A.  Analysis
B.  Controller
C.  File server
D.  Load generator/host
Ans: B

59) Which scenario allows LoadRunner to automatically manage the Vusers?
A.  Manual
B.  Goal-oriented
C.  User-Defined
D.  Session
Ans: B

60) Which scenario execution run is used to verity the load limit before more resources are required?
A.  Debug
B.  Full Load
C.  Top Time
D.  Scalability
Ans: D

61) Where in the Run-time settings can you define to only send messages when an error occurs?
A.  General: Log
B.  General: Run Logic
C.  General: Miscellaneous
D.  General: Additional Attributes
Ans: A

62) Which LoadRunner tool captures the communication between the browser and web server?
A.  VuGen
B.  Analysis
C.  Controller
D.  Load Generator/host
Ans: A

63) Which performance test objective is met when determining if the system is stable enough to go into production?
A.  Regression
B.  Acceptance
C.  Capacity planning
D.  Product evaluation
Ans: B

64) When you specify to iterate a script 10 times, which sections of the script are iterated?
A.  Group
B.  Action
C.  Vuser_init
D.  Vuser_end
Ans: B

65) View the Business Process Profile table for the e-commerce site shown in the exhibit. Which business processes are the most critical to record?
A.  Sign in
B.  Checkout
C.  Contact Us
D.  View sale items
Ans: D

66) When you define a rendezvous point in a scenario, where should the Ir_start transaction function be placed?
A.  At the end of the action section
B.  At the beginning of the action section
C.  Immediately after the rendezvous function
D.  Immediately before the rendezvous function
Ans: C

67) Which step comes after scenario execution in the load testing process?
A.  Analyze Results
B.  Rerun the Scenario
C.  Record the Process
D.  Fine Tune the System
Ans: A

68) A script was recorded with an average think time for an advanced user. An advanced user pauses 5 seconds between clicks. A first-time user pauses an average of 10 seconds between clicks. How can you modify the think time run-time settings to emulate a
A.  Set the think time to s recorded
B.  Set the think time to multiply the recorded think time by 4
C.  Set the think time to a random percentage between 150% - 250%
D.  Set the think time to replay as recorded, but limit the think time to 10 seconds
Ans: C

69) How can you validate that the LoadRunner Agent is running on the load generator?
A.  Port 443 will be open.
B.  The MIFW.exe process will be running.
C.  The radar dish wall appear in the system tray.
D.  The load generator will be pinged using the name/DNS/IP.
Ans: C

70) Which scenario execution run allows you to look for potential transactions that require significantly longer times to complete?
A.  Debug
B.  Full Load
C.  Scalability
D.  Top Time Transaction
Ans: D

71) You run a load test & the performance does not agree with your goals. What is the next step that should be taken?
A.  Consult with subject matter experts
B.  Add an additional web server to the environment
C.  Add additional memory to the hardware under test
D.  Change your run time settings and return the scenario
Ans: A

72) Which level of concurrency identifies how many users are currently in the process of buying a ticket?
A.  System
B.  Application
C.  Transaction
D.  Business process
Ans: D

73) You are analyzing the results for a Debug run and realize that response times are better than SLAs. What should you do?
A.  Re-run the scenario again to validate the transaction response times
B.  Inform the project manager that additional performance tests are not necessary
C.  Ignore the transaction response times because they are meaningless in a Debug run
D.  Prepare for overload/scalability testing because the application is ready for additional users
Ans: C

74) You want to control the delay between iterations. Where do you set this in the IZun-time settings?
A.  General: Pacing
B.  General; Think Time
C.  Network: Speed Simulation
D.  Browser: Browser Emulation
Ans: A

75) Which LoadRunner component is supported on UNIX?
A.  VuGen
B.  Analysis
C.  Controller
D.  Load generator
Ans:  D

76) Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to compare a measurement in a graph with other measurements during a specific time range of a scenario and view similar trends?
A.  Drill Down
B.  Apply Filter
C.  Merge Graphs
D.  Auto Correlate
Ans: D

77) What is an intersection point in a business process?
A.  Scenario
B.  Rendezvous
C.  Transaction
D.  Service level agreement
Ans: B

78) Which Analysis graph details the delay for the complete path between the source and destination machines?
A.  MS IIS
B.  Windows Resource
C.  Network Delay Time
D.  Time to First Buffer Breakdown
Ans: C

79) What does the elapsed time in the Scenario Status window refer to?
A.  The time that has elapsed from when all Vusers have finished Initializing
B.  The time that has elapsed from when all Vusers were in the running state
C.  The time that has elapsed from when you press the start Scenario button
D.  The time that has elapsed from when the first Vusers entered the running state
Ans: C

80) While running a script in the Controller you notice a scripting error. While the scenario is still open, you return to VuGen, make the coding modification & save the script. What do you need to do before running the scenario again?
A.  Save the scenario
B.  Refresh the script in the Controller
C.  Refresh the Run-time settings in the Controller
D.  Do nothing. The script will automatically refresh.
Ans: B

81) You configure a scenario to start with a delay of (HH:MM:SS) just before leaving from work. You return the next morning to find that the scenario did not run. Why would this happen?
A.  You failed to save the scenario.
B.  You failed to save the schedule.
C.  You failed to connect to the load generators.
D.  You failed to press the START SCENARIO button.
Ans: D

82) Which performance test objective is met when determining if the new version of the software adversely affects response time?
A.  Reliability
B.  Regression
C.  Acceptance
D.  Capacity planning
Ans: B

83) What displays business processes and volume across a time line?
A.  Business process profile
B.  Task distribution diagram
C.  Business process mapping
D.  System configuration analysis
Ans: B

84) What is the appropriate scenario outline if your quantitative goal is to attain 2,500 concurrent users for the Update transaction during peak time?
A.  Load test should achieve 2,500 users only.
B.  Script should define the Update transaction only.
C.  Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2,500 users.
D.  Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2,500 concurrent users.
Ans: D

85) What is the first stage of the load testing process?
A.  Plan the load test
B.  Create the Scenario
C.  Execute the Scenario
D.  Create VuGen Scripts
Ans: A

86) On which platform can the Controller be installed?
A.  UNIX
B.  Linux
C.  Windows
D.  Sun Solaris
Ans: C

87) During a top time transaction run, what is the recommended load percentage?
A.  20%
B.  35%
C.  50%
D.  100%
Ans: A

88) Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2,500 concurrent users.
A.  150
B.  200
C.  400
D.  475
Ans: B

89) What allows you to gather performance metrics for a variety of major backend system components including firewalls, application servers, and database servers?
A.  Monitors
B.  Scenarios
C.  Transactions
D.  Service level agreement
Ans: A

90) What is the LoadRunner term for varying values defined in a placeholder that replaces the hard-coded values?
A.  Variable
B.  Constant
C.  Parameter
D.  Correlation
Ans: C

91) Which performance test finds the behavior and performance of each tier?
A.  Load test
B.  Volume test
C.  Scalability test
D.  Component test
Ans: D

92) Which performance test is used to find the system breaking point?
A.  Load test
B.  Volume test
C.  Scalability test
D.  Component test
Ans: C

93) What is the output of the following code snippet?
int i = 10;
lr_output_message (answer is: %d --i);
A.  1
B.  9
C.  10
D.  Invalid Code Snippet
Ans: B

94) What is the recommended Logging Run-time setting when playing back a script prior to manual correlation?
A.  Standard
B.  Disable Logging
C.  Extended -> Parameter Substitution
D.  Extended -> Data Returned by Server
Ans: D

95) You want to apply Script A Run-time settings, parameters, extra files, and actions to Script B. How can this be accomplished?
A.  Save Script A script as a template, then apply the template to Script B
B.  Export Script A settings to a .cor file, then import the settings to Script B
C.  Select the option to create a new Vuser script from, then, select Script A
D.  Copy the .ext file located in Script A main directory to Script B main directory
Ans: A

96) Which type of parameter can use the parameter simulation?
A.  File
B.  Date/Time
C.  Unique Number
D.  Random Number
Ans: A

97) What is the common function used to display messages in the Replay Log?
A.  lr_eval_string
B.  lr_save_string
C.  lr_set_debug_level
D.  lr_output_message
Ans: D

98) Which VuGen view guides you through the steps in script creation?
A.  Tree view
B.  Task view
C.  Script view
D.  Thumbnail view
Ans: B

99) When performing a manual correlation, where do you search for the dynamic value?
A.  Script view
B.  Recording Log
C.  Tree view -> Client Request
D.  Tree view -> Server Response
Ans: D

100) Which type of script is a lower level that records in Analog mode when using the web protocol in VuGen?
A.  URL
B.  HTML
C.  ANSI C
D.  Winsock
Ans: A